This work has
been revised updated in:
The Theory
of Interest:
Robertson versus Keynes
and
The Long-Period Problem of
Saving and Debt
Copyright, 1983-2017
All Rights Reserved
Liquidity-Preference/Loanable-Funds
and
The Long-Period Problem of Saving*
George H. Blackford © (8/13/16 updated 8/28/16)
(4/26/2016)
Contents
I. The
Marshallian Roots of Liquidity-Preference/Loanable-Funds
II.
Loanable Funds and Marshall
III.
Keynes’ General Theory and the Long-period Problem of Saving
IV.
Summary and Conclusion
References
Endnotes
Abstract
The purpose of this paper
is to re-examine the central issue of the liquidity-preference/loanable-funds controversy in an attempt to provide a definitive explanation
of the way in which the rate of interest is determined. The Marshallian
roots of the controversy are established in section I, and in section II it
is explained why the liquidity-preference theory is compatible with the
Marshallian paradigm and the loanable-funds theory is not. The long-period
problem of saving that lies at the center of Robertson’s objection to
Keynes’ theory of interest is examined in section III, and in section IV it
is explained why the failure to understand this problem within the context
of the Marshallian paradigm, combined with the failure to understand the nature
of the vital role played by loanable funds in the economic system, led
mainstream economists to recommend economic policies over the past forty
years that culminated in the Crash of 2008 and brought about the economic
stagnation we are in the midst of today.
I spent a great deal of time in an earlier life
plodding through the Liquidity-Preference/Loanable-Funds debate that
followed the publication of J. M. Keynes’ The General Theory of
Employment, Interest, and Money. I was astonished at the time by
the extent to which the conventional wisdom within the discipline of
economics was out of touch with the reality of this debate.[1] By the late 1970s it seemed the debate had already become a classic in the
sense that everyone knew about it but no one had actually read it, and as
far as I can tell nothing much has changed since then.
I found the debate itself to be surreal.
Before and during the early part of World War II the debate was waged
explicitly in Marshallian terms. Keynes argued there was a
fundamental difference between the two theories in that the
liquidity-preference theory assumes the rate of interest (i.e., the “complex
of rates of interest for debts of different maturities” [Keynes (1936, p.
131)] is determined by the supply and demand for liquidity (i.e., “money or
its equivalent” [Keynes (1936, p. 106)]) and not by savings and investment
(i.e., loanable-funds).
[2] His main
protagonist, D. H. Robertson, argued that the two theories were the same and
that Keynes failed to understand the mechanism by which savings and
investment determine the rate of interest through their contribution to the
supply and demand for loanable funds.
After the War, when Keynes was no longer around
to defend his theory, the Keynesians came along and the debate entered a
Walrasian phase. The Keynesians argued that the two theories are the same
in the sense that it does not make any difference whether one assumes the
rate of interest is determined by savings and investment (i.e., supply and
demand for loanable funds) or by the supply and demand for money (i.e.,
liquidity) since the same short-run equilibrium rate of interest is implied
by either assumption. The Robertsonians continued to attack Keynes’
arguments as they insisted that the rate of interest is determined by
savings and investment (presumably in a Marshallian sense) irrespective of
whether the short-run equilibrium was the same or not. And so it went until
the early 1960s when Robertson left us, and the debate just sort of petered
out. At that point we were left with two schools of thought within
mainstream economics: one that argued the rate of interest is determined by
savings and investment and one that argued it didn’t make any difference
what you assumed about how the rate of interest is determined.
It seemed quite obvious to me in the late 1970s
and early 1980s, and seems even more obvious to me today, that both of these
schools of thought were wrong in their understanding of what Keynes had to
say about the way in which the rate of interest is determined. It
also seemed obvious to me that the failure to resolve the fundamental issue
that separated Robertson and Keynes in this controversy was a mistake with
the potential for serious consequences, and it is clear to me today that
these consequences have, in fact, come home to roost.
I believe that a great deal of the controversy
we see in the discipline of economics today arises from a failure to
definitively resolve the central issue of the
liquidity-preference/loanable-funds debate within the context in which it
originally began, namely, within the context of the Marshallian paradigm of
supply and demand. Now there are many grounds on which one can criticize
this paradigm, but I suspect that almost all economists recognize its
essential validity, and I can’t even imagine what it would be like trying to
make sense out of a market economy in a principles course without the
concepts of supply and demand as put forth by Marshall. It seems quite
clear to me that the Marshallian paradigm is the sine qua non of all
short-run/long-run equilibrium analysis in economics. If you are unable to
start with an explanation of the way in which prices and quantities are
determined by the actions of decision-making units in individual markets
within the context of a Marshallian, partial-equilibrium model, how is it
possible to provide a causal explanation of the way in which prices
and quantities are determined within any economic model? [Blackford
(2016)]
Thus, the place to begin an examination of the
liquidity-preference/loanable-funds controversy is by establishing its
Marshallian roots.
In his
November, 1936 review of Keynes' General Theory Robertson took Keynes
to task for his analysis of what Robertson called the “long-period problem
of saving.”
[3] Toward the end of his review Robertson concluded:
“Ultimately, therefore, it is not as a refutation of a common-sense account
of events in terms of supply and demand for loanable funds, but as an
alternative version of it, that Mr. Keynes' account as finally developed
must be regarded.” [Robertson (1936, p.183)]
In his February
1937 reply to Robertson, Keynes asked Robertson to provide at least one
reference to where this “common sense” account is to be found. [Keynes
(1937a, p. 210)] Keynes made this request because Robertson based his
conclusion on an analysis framed entirely within the context of the
supply and demand for money (see footnote 3 above), and at no point did he
define what he meant by the supply and demand for loanable funds.
Prior to Keynes’ request, no one had attempted to give a precise explanation
of what was meant by these terms, and the first attempt to do so was by B.
G. Ohlin.[4]
In June of 1937 Ohlin stated that prices in
financial markets, and thereby rates of interest, “are governed by . . .
supply and demand in the usual way" [Ohlin (1937a, p. 225)], and in
September he concluded that
the curves of demand and
supply of credit determine the prices of claims, i.e., the rates of
interest, and the actual credit transaction in the same way as prices and
dealings are fixed on commodity markets. Anyone who refuses to accept
this analysis of the pricing of claims must, I think, refute also the
Marshallian supply and demand curve analysis in toto [emphasis
added]. [Ohlin (1937b, p.426)]
In response, Keynes insisted that his
liquidity-preference theory and the loanable-funds theory put forth by Ohlin
were “radically opposed to one another."
[5] The problem was that Ohlin had defined the supply and demand for
loanable-funds to include the flow of saving and investment and then simply
asserted that the theory he had explained is consistent with the Marshallian
paradigm.
[6] In fact, Keynes
had demonstrated in his Treatise on Money that any theory that
assumes the rate of interest to be determined by the flow of saving or
investment is logically inconsistent with this paradigm. This was the central issue with which Keynes was concerned.
That it was also the central issue that stood between Robertson and Keynes
is indicated by Robertson’s 1936 [p. 188] objection to Keynes’ “old
argument.”
This argument is to be found in Keynes’
Treatise on Money,
and by virtue of this argument Keynes had explained why it was
logically impossible for a change in saving or investment, in
itself, to cause a change in the rate of interest.
[7]
Both Robertson and F. A. Hayek
[8] had criticized this
argument in 1931 for its failure to consider the effects of a subsequent
fall in income on the rate of interest. In his September 1931 reply, Keynes
restated the argument, emphasized the words “in itself" in the first
sentence of his original argument,
[9]
and toward the end of the discussion added a footnote explaining that his
argument does not deal with a situation in which output changes.[10]
In addition, in the preface to The General Theory Keynes explained
the nature of the theoretical arguments put forth in his Treatise on
Money as an “instantaneous picture taken on the assumption of a given
output.”
[11]
From a) the text of Keynes’ old argument
itself, b) Keynes' emphasis on the words “in itself” in his response to
Robertson's and Hayek's criticisms, c) the footnote stating that his
argument does not deal with the situation in which output changes, and d)
Keynes’s explanation in the preface to The General Theory that his
argument in The Treatise on Money assumes a given output, it
is clear that in spite of the fact that Robertson presented his objections
to Keynes' old argument within the context of “the long-period problem of
saving” [Robertson, (1936, p. 187)], this argument does not deal with the
long-period effects of an increased rate of saving on income or the rate of
interest. Specifically, it has to do with a ceteris paribus
situation in which output, that is, income is assumed to be
constant. This is, of course, precisely the kind of situation that is the
essence of Marshall’s partial-equilibrium paradigm. [Blackford
(2016)]
Keynes argued that if savings is defined as the
difference between income and expenditures on consumption goods (and if we
do not accept this almost universally accepted definition of saving it is
not at all clear what we are talking about until saving is otherwise clearly
defined) it is impossible to explain the determination of the rate of
interest in terms of the supply and demand for loanable funds by way of the
Marshallian paradigm of supply and demand. The reason is that, given this
definition—that is, if what is meant by saving is not consuming—it is
impossible for a ceteris paribus change in either the saving (supply
of loanable funds) or the investment (demand for loanable funds) schedule to
affect the rate of interest, given income, in the absence of a change in
either the supply or demand for money.
The nature of this problem can be seen by
considering a situation in which there is an increase in the propensity to
save and, hence, by definition, a fall in the propensity to consume
that arises as a result of, say, a national catastrophe such as 9/11.
People feel insecure, and in response they consume less and simply allow a
larger portion of their incomes to accumulate in their bank accounts than
they otherwise would. How will this increase in savings—which, by
definition, means nothing more than a decrease in consumption—accompanied
by an increase in the accumulation of money by consumers affect the rate of
interest in a ceteris paribus situation in which the supply of money
and income do not change?
Within the context of Keynes' liquidity-preference
theory of interest
[12] the accumulation of money in inactive deposits would be seen as an
increase in the precautionary demand for money on the part of households. In the absence of
a change in income (value of output produced) there would be no decrease in
the demand for transactions or precautionary balances on the part of
businesses or households, and businesses would find they could no longer
replenish their transactions balances from sales. When faced with this
situation businesses would be forced to either sell assets (the purchase of
which would have to be financed by an increase in borrowing to the extent
that it is not financed by a decrease in the demand for speculative
balances) or increase borrowing in order to maintain the transactions and
precautionary balances needed to meet their expenditure obligations. As the
demand for precautionary balances on the part of households increased with
no change in the demands for precautionary balances on the part of firms or
in transactions balances on the part of either households or firms, the net
effect would be an increase in the total demand for money. Thus, in the
absence of an increase in the supply of money, we would expect this increase
in the demand for money to cause an increase in the rate of interest
in order to make speculative balances available to households and firms to
meet their transactions and precautionary needs.
[13]
How can this situation be explained within the
loanable-funds theory? The only way it would seem to make sense is if we
assumed that the increase in the propensity to save (the loanable-funds
supply schedule) that made it impossible for businesses to replenish their
transactions and precautionary balances through sales and forced them to
increase their borrowing caused an increase in the loanable-funds
demand schedule that is greater than the increase in the loanable-funds
supply schedule. But once we have done this the concept of the supply and
demand for loanable funds becomes meaningless for analytical purposes since
changes in the supply and demand for loanable funds schedules are now
defined in terms of changes in the supply and demand for money, and it no longer makes sense
to argue that the rate of interest is determined by savings and investment
(loanable funds) in any sense that would be recognized by Marshall. But the
alternative is to arbitrarily assert that the rate of interest will
fall in this situation by way of some sort of magic (i.e., tâtonnement/recontract
process) without any explanation of any kind, causal or otherwise, as to
why it will fall. [Blackford
(2016)]
But the inconsistency with Marshallian paradigm
does not end here since it is reasonable to assume that eventually
the increase in saving (which, by definition, means a decrease in
consumption), if it persists, must lead to a change in expectations on
the part of producers of consumption goods with regard to the profitability
of continuing to produce at the current level of employment and output.
This, in turn, must lead to a fall in employment, output, and, hence,
income. But this change in expectations and fall in income must also
cause a fall in the saving (i.e., the supply of loanable funds) schedule
at each rate of interest and (as we shall see) will probably have an effect
on the investment (i.e., the demand for loanable funds) schedule as well.
This means that the intersection of these two schedules—which defines the
equilibrium rate of interest in the loanable-funds theory—must change as
expectations and income change before the rate of interest can
change. [cf. Blackford
(2016)]
What does it mean to say that savings and
investment determine the rate of interest in a Marshallian
supply-and-demand, partial-equilibrium analysis in a situation in which,
given income, an increase in the propensity to save (the loanable-funds
supply schedule) will force an increase in borrowing (an increase in the
loanable-funds demand schedule) so that there is no reason for the rate of
interest to fall until income falls, and when income does fall the
equilibrium rate of interest given by the intersection of these two
schedules—and toward which the rate of interest is supposed to
move—changes?
When the supply of apples increases in a
ceteris paribus situation in which the income of demanders is assumed to
be given, it is reasonable to argue that competition among suppliers and
demanders for apples will cause the price of apples to fall toward
the new equilibrium price defined by the supply and demand for apples. How
would a Marshallian analysis of the market for apples work in this situation
if the demanders for apples were somehow forced to buy the increased supply
of apples in order to maintain their income, and once their incomes fell
both the supply and demand curves for apples changed? This sort of thing
does not happen in the market for apples, and that is why a Marshallian
analysis of the market for apples makes sense in terms of cause and
effect and why it makes sense to say that the price of apples is
determined by the supply and demand for apples. [Blackford
(2016)] This
sort of thing does happen in the loanable-funds market when savings and
investment are included in the supply and demand for loanable funds
schedules. This is why Keynes argued it does not make sense to talk about
the supply and demand for loanable funds determining the rate of interest as
if this market were no different than the market for apples.
The loanable-funds market is fundamentally
different from every other (competitive) market in this regard. It makes
sense to argue that competition among decision-making units will force
(i.e., cause) the rate of interest to move to the partial-equilibrium
value determined by the intersection of the supply and demand for money
schedules, given income, just as it makes sense to argue that competition
among decision-making units will force (i.e., cause) the price of
apples to move to the partial-equilibrium value determined by the supply and
demand for apples schedules, given income. It also makes sense to argue
that decision-making units will be able to force the level of income (output
and employment) to the partial-equilibrium value determined by the saving
and investment schedules given the rate of interest. But it does not
make sense to argue that it is possible for decision-making units to force
the rate of interest to move to the partial-equilibrium value in the market
for loanable funds, given income, when these schedules are defined in terms
of saving and investing. [Blackford
(2016)]
And it is important to understand that it makes
no difference with regard to the viability of the loanable-funds theory if
the demand for transactions balances by firms is assumed to be met wholly
through a decrease in their demand for precautionary balances (assuming
precautionary balances are sufficient to accomplish this end) in response
to an increase in saving. There would be no increase in ex post
borrowing in this situation, but there would also be no change in the demand
for money either. There is still no reason to expect the rate of interest
to fall in response to the increase in saving as the loanable-funds theory
predicts because there is no change in the willingness to either borrow
or lend in spite of the increase in saving. This is perfectly
consistent with Keynes’ liquidity-preference theory. Since neither the
supply nor the demand for money has changed in this situation the
liquidity-preference theory predicts that the rate of interest will
not change. [Blackford (1987)]
When this problem is looked at from the
perspective of the choices available to decision-making units we find that
when ex ante expectations are not realized with regard to sales in
the wake of an increase in thrift something must change ex post.
[Clower and
Blackford (1975)] If expectations with regard to the
profitability of producing at the current level of production remains
unchanged firms must
change either their demand for money or their demand for loanable funds in
order to finance the current level of production, but, the point is, in
either case it is the shortage of money that is the source of the problem
faced by firms in this situation, not a shortage of saving. And it is
the choices made by firms with regard to their demands for money as they
react to this shortage of money that will cause the
rate of interest to change or to not change. If you try to explain the
determination of the rate of interest in any way other than in terms of the
choices of decision-making units with regard to their supplies and demands
for money in response to this shortage of money you end up with
nonsense when you attempt to establish the temporal order in which events
must occur, that is, when you attempt to establish cause and
effect. [Blackford (1983;
1986;
1987;
2016)]
When economists look at the world through the
lens of a static short-run or long-run equilibrium model where a set of
endogenous variables are assumed to be determined by a set of exogenous
variables and parameters this problem does not arise. It is only in the
realm of dynamic analysis that it becomes important. When
undertaking dynamic analysis one can, of course, assume that the changes in
a price are determined by anything one wishes, but that choice should not be
made arbitrarily. That choice should be made in a way that makes sense in
terms of a Marshallian partial-equilibrium analysis in which it is possible
to establish the temporal order in which events must occur. Only
then is it possible to provide a causal explanation in terms of the
behavior of those who are willing to buy and sell in the market—that
is, in terms of the behavior of those decision-making units that actually
have the power to determine the prices at which quantities are produced and
exchanged in the market—as to why we would expect a change in price to
occur. [Blackford
(2016)] Following this convention, it makes sense in
terms of cause and effect to assume that changes in the rate
of interest are determined by the excess demand for money. As was noted
above, the only way in which the loanable-funds theory makes sense in terms
of cause and effect is if the supply and demand for loanable
funds schedules are defined in such a way that the behavior of these
schedules is determined by the supply and demand for money. Otherwise the
a priori predictions of this theory are nonsense.
[14]
It is worth stopping here for a moment to think
about what this means: given the almost universally accepted definition of
saving, the rate of interest cannot change in response to a change in the
propensities to save or invest until after there is a subsequent
change in the supply or demand for money. Even though a change in the
propensity to save or invest will undoubtedly set in motion a chain of
events that will ultimately cause a change in the rate of interest
along with all of the other endogenous variables in the system, it can
only cause the rate of interest to change through an effect on
the supply or demand for money. This means that the rate of interest is
a purely monetary phenomenon—determined by the supply and demand for
money, not by saving or investment. It also means that if we want to
understand how the system works in terms of cause and effect we have to
begin with the assumption that the rate of interest is determined by the
supply and demand for money (i.e., liquidity) and cannot assume that it is
determined by saving and investment. If you begin with the assumption
that the rate of interest is determined by saving and investment you can’t
get here from there.
Robertson was never able to accept the
implications of this simple logical fact, yet neither he nor any of
his fellow anti-Keynesians were able to specify a sensible model in which
the rate of interest was not determined by the supply and demand for money.
[15] This failure on
their part is of little import, but the fact that the Keynesians were either
unable or unwilling to fully incorporate this insight into their
neo-classical models has had the gravest of consequences, for it has meant
that for sixty odd years mainstream economists simply ignored the
fundamental problem that lies at the very core of Keynes’ general theory,
namely, the long-period problem of saving.
As has been noted, it was the determination of
the rate of interest in the Marshallian sense with which Keynes was most
concerned. The reason is that economists could, and did (and,
unfortunately, still do) use the idea that the rate of interest is
determined by savings and investment to argue that an increase in the
propensity to save will lead to a fall in the rate of interest which will,
in turn, lead to an increase in investment, output, and economic well-being
in the future. This is the kind of argument Robertson was attempting to
justify in his November 1936 review quoted at length in footnote 3 above.
Keynes adamantly rejected this kind of argument.
Keynes argued that whenever the production of
output takes time, at each and every point in time at which a decision must
be made concerning employment and output this decision must be made on the
basis of currently held expectations with regard to the costs to be paid and
the proceeds to be received in the future when the output is to be produced
and sold. The actual costs and proceeds that result from employment and
output decisions cannot have a direct effect on these decisions, only an
indirect effect and, even then, only to the extent that they have an effect
on subsequent expectations, that is, on expectations formed after the
expected costs and proceeds are (or are not) actually realized.
[16]
This argument has clear implications with
regard to income. Keynes took great care in constructing his definition of
income, and he constructed this definition in such a way that the value of
income depends only on the value of output produced where this value
is dependent on the expectations of producers. Whenever production
takes time, income, so defined, is earned before the output produced
in generating that income is sold. As a result, income as it enters the
decision-making process is a purely psychological phenomenon, determined in
the minds of decision-making units, and cannot be separated from the current
expectations of these units.
[17] The implication
is that whenever production takes time, at each and every point in time at
which a decision must be made concerning income, this decision must be made
on the basis of currently held expectations in exactly the same way in which
decisions concerning employment and output must be made on the basis of
currently held expectations.
[18]
In addition, Keynes argued that since the
actions of decision-making units depend crucially on their expectations with
regard to the future, the way in which wealth holders react to the fall in
the return on assets in the consumption-goods industries that must accompany
an increase in the propensity to save (i.e., a decrease in the propensity to
consume) will depend on how it affects their expectations with regard to the
expected future returns on those assets. He also argued that since
expectations are greatly affected by current experiences there is no reason
to assume that an increase in the propensity to save will have a positive
effect on these expectations with regard to the profitability of investing
in the consumption-goods industries.
[19]
As a result, Keynes saw no reason to accept the
conventional wisdom to the effect that there will be an increase in economic
output and well-being in the future as a result of the increase in the rate
of capital accumulation that will occur in response to an increase in the
propensity to save because the conflicting forces operating on investors in
this situation imply that there is no a priori reason to believe that the
net effect of an increase in the propensity to save on investment will be an
increase in the rate of capital accumulation.
[20]
This is a very different way of looking at the
problem than the way Robertson saw it. The difference can be seen by
examining the way in which Robertson analyzed this problem in his 1936
review of Keynes’ General Theory (quoted in its entirety in footnote
3 above):
. . . it may be
convenient to conclude by examining briefly the bearing of his liquidity
preference formula on the long-period problem of saving. . . . Will an
increased rate of saving which is not itself hoarding (e.g. which takes the
form of an increased demand for securities), but which involves an actual
diminution in the rate of expenditure on consumable goods, lead to a
progressive shrinkage in total money income?
. . . Mr. Keynes appears
to invoke his formula in support of the view that such an event has no
tendency to bring down the rate of interest nor therefore to stimulate the
formation of capital equipment. For why, he asks, the quantity of money
being unchanged, should a fresh3 act of saving diminish the sum which it is
required to keep in liquid form at the existing rate of interest? The
answer surely emerges from the composite nature of liquidity preference. If
the event in question deprives the producers of consumption goods of income,
it reduces by the same act their ability to hold money for transaction
and precautionary purposes [emphasis added]. . . .
. . . if
there exists for the community as a whole a negatively inclined curve of
"liquidity preference proper" . . . some part of the additional savings
devoted by individuals to the purchase of securities will come to rest in
the banking accounts of those who, at the higher price of securities, desire
to hold an increased quantity of money.6
Thus the fall in the rate
of interest and the stimulus to the formation of capital will be less than
[the fall in consumption] and the stream of money income will tend to
contract. . . .
It would,
I think, be agreed by "orthodox” writers7 that this is a situation calling
for a progressive increase in the supply of money. [Robertson (1936, pp.
187-9)]
As is explained in this passage, in Robertson’s
view of this problem an increase in the rate of savings that takes the form
of an increased demand for securities will simultaneously (“by the
same act”) cause a fall in income, the demand for money, and, hence, the
rate of interest. The fall in the rate of interest will, in turn, lead to
an increase in the demand for capital goods thereby leading to a smooth
transfer of resources out of the consumption-goods industries and into the
capital-goods industries if facilitated by an increase in the supply of
money to compensate for the increased demand for speculative balances
brought on by the fall in the rate of interest.
[21] Keynes did not
see this sequence of events in this way at all.
From the perspective of Keynes’ general theory,
what we are looking at here is a dynamic sequence of events that can
only take place through time. Keynes saw this sequence as beginning
with a ceteris paribus situation in which, given the expectations
on which employment, output, and hence, income depend, businesses would
find they could no longer replenish their transactions and precautionary
balances from sales. To meet their expenditure obligations they would be
forced to sell assets or increase their borrowing in order to obtain the
requisite transactions and precautionary balances needed to maintain the
level of employment and output that maximized their expected
profits. Keynes argued that it is only after expectations change
with regard to the profitability of continuing to produce at the
current level of employment and output that businesses would allow the
level of output, employment, and, hence, income to fall; it is only after
output, employment, and income fell that the rate of interest would fall.
[cf. Blackford
(2016)]
Why would anyone think businesses would not
react in this way in response to a fall in sales? After all, businesses do
in fact live in a world of uncertainty in which sales fluctuate from day to
day, week to week, and month to month. They cannot know that a fall in
receipts on any given day or during any given week or month is permanent and
will not be compensated for by an increase on the following day or during
the following week or month. They are in fact forced to form expectations
with various degrees of confidence as to what the future will bring, and
their decisions with regard to employment, output, and income in the present
must be based on those expectations. Where did Keynes go wrong in assuming
that until expectations change and employment, output, and income fall
businesses must turn to the credit markets to finance their income payments
and other obligations that determine their demands for money to the extent
these payments and obligations cannot be financed otherwise? All of this
seems reasonable in view of the fact that to argue otherwise one must accept
the absurd implication that businesses have unit-elastic expectations that
adjust instantaneously to changes in sales and that employment, output, and
the demand for money adjust accordingly.
[22]
We have already seen that if savers choose to
hold the increase in savings that will accumulate in this ceteris paribus
situation in the form of money it will cause the demand for money and rate
of interest to increase. How will the situation change if savers, as
Robertson suggest, choose to accumulate securities instead of money with
their increased savings? The only difference would be that there would be
no increase in the demand for money on the part of households and the
resulting increase in the willingness of producers in the consumption-goods
industries to borrow (in the absence of a change in income or in the
supply or demand for money) would exactly offset the increase in the
willingness of savers to lend, and instead of the rate of interest
increasing (as we would expect when the saving goes to accumulate money
rather than securities) there would be no reason for the rate of interest to
change at all.
[23]
The only way Robertson could have phrased his
question so that it made sense in terms of an increase in the
accumulation of capital is to assume that the increased rate of saving in
this ceteris paribus situation (i.e., given income and the supply of
money) takes the form of a direct increase in the demand for capital goods.
If this were the case it would be reasonable to assume that the increased
demand for capital goods would, ceteris paribus, lead to an increase
in the prices and output of capital goods, but even in this situation there
is no reason to believe it would have the direct effect of causing
the rate of interest to fall. There would still be a shortage of money
in the consumption-goods industries in the absence of a change in
expectations, and there would be no change in the willingness to lend by
savers. In addition, to the extent savers accumulated money balances in
anticipation of their expenditures on capital goods, we would expect the
rate of interest to increase before any accumulation of capital took
place by way of the concomitant increase in the demand for money through
what Keynes called the demand for “finance.”
[24]
At the same time, it is important to keep
clearly in mind what we are talking about in this hypothetical situation
where the increase in saving takes the form of an increase in the
accumulation of capital. We are talking about investment! It is the
increase in investment that will stimulate the formation of capital
in this hypothetical situation, not the increase in saving. By
definition, saving is the act of not consuming one’s income. This is
not the same thing as investing. Investing is the accumulation of newly
produced real assets. It is the increased demand for real assets that will
cause the prices and output in the capital-goods industries to increase in
this situation, not the decrease in consumption. And even in
this situation there is no guarantee that the long-run effect of this
increase in saving will be an increase in output or capital formation as
this dynamic sequence of events plays itself out over time.
If you believe, as Keynes believed, that
production takes time and producers must be guided by their expectations
with regard to the profitability of continuing to produce in the
consumption-goods industries at the current levels of output and employment
there is no reason to believe that income will begin to fall in the
consumption-goods industries, no matter what form the increase in saving
takes, until after there is a change in expectations with regard to the
profitability of continuing to produce in the consumption-goods industries
at the current levels of output and employment. Furthermore, if you
also believe, as Keynes believed, that all production is ultimately for the
purpose of satisfying the consumer, there is also no reason to believe that
the subsequent fall in expectations in the consumption-goods industries with
regard to the profitability of continuing to produce at the current level of
output and employment will not have an adverse effect on expectations with
regard to the profitability of further investing in those industries. This
means that the resulting fall in the rate of interest that is supposed to
increase investment as output, employment, and income in the
consumption-goods industries fall is apt to be accompanied by a fall in
expectations with regard to the profitability of investing in those
industries. There is no a priori justification for assuming
that, in the end, the net effect of these two opposing forces acting on
investment will be an increase in the accumulation of capital in the long
run. The positive effect on investment from the fall in the rate of
interest could be more than offset by the negative effect from the change in
expectations with regard to the profitability of investment. Thus, there is
no a priori reason to believe that the increase in saving that takes
the form of an increase in the demand for capital goods will ultimately lead
to increase in the accumulation of capital in the long run as this dynamic
sequence of events plays itself out rather than a decrease in employment,
output and income. This is especially so if the fall in the propensity to
consume turns out to be permanent as expectation adjust to this reality in
the long-run.
[25]
As I have noted elsewhere, [Blackford
(2016)] Keynes did not
present his general theory in terms of a system of simultaneous equations.
That was done by A. H. Hansen [1953], J. R. Hicks,
P. A. Samuelson, D. Patinkin, and
countless other Keynesians. Their approach was Walrasian, and as a result
of their efforts a Walrasian revolution took place in economics in the name
of Keynes following the publication of The General Theory. This
revolution took Keynes’ name in spite of the fact that Keynes was a
protégé of Marshall, not Walras, and Keynes refused to specify
sophisticated mathematical models that ignore the details.
[26] He spent his
entire life examining the details in an attempt to discover the causal
relationships that drive the economic system through time.
In examining the details, among many other
things, it became clear to him that 1) the ultimate justification for
production is to satisfy the demands of consumers, 2) the true causal
variables in a market system in which the processes of production takes time
are expectations with regard to the future, 3) the rate of interest is a
purely monetary phenomena determined by the supply and demand for liquidity
as the prices of assets adjust to equate wealth-holder demands for assets to
the existing stocks of assets, 4) given the supply of money, the rate of
interest cannot change in a significant way in response to an increase in
the propensity to save until there is a change in expectations with regard
to the profitability of continuing to produce at the current level of
employment and output, and 5) there is no a priori reason to believe
that a change in expectations with regard to the profitability of continuing
to produce at the current level of employment, output, and income in the
face of a decrease in demand for consumption goods will leave expectations
with regard to the profitability of investment unchanged.
These are all crucial insights that lie at the
very core of Keynes’ general theory, especially the realization that the
rate of interest is a purely monetary phenomenon determined by the supply
and demand for liquidity. What this means is that investment is determined
by the rate of interest, not the other way around. It also means that
monetary policy is limited in its ability to stimulate the economy by the
propensities of wealth holders with regard to their demands for liquidity,
and once rates of interest have reached the lower bounds set by the
propensities of wealth holders the level of economic activity is determined
by the propensity to consume and the demand for investment goods. And since
the demand for investment goods is ultimately determined by expectations
with regard to future consumption, and since expectations with regard to
future consumption are largely determined by current consumption, the level
of economic activity must be largely determined by current consumption and,
ultimately, by the way in which current consumption changes over time.
When all of these insights are put together, as
Keynes did in The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money,
what you find is that consumption is the driving force for economic
growth, not saving. All of this would seem to be rather
straightforward, and, yet, this way of looking at the economic system was
not taught or even acknowledged in graduate schools when I was in academia,
and I suspect is still not taught or acknowledged in graduate schools to
this day. Instead, graduate students were taught the Walrasian paradigm
with tâtonnement/recontract dynamics while the Marshallian paradigm
from which the dynamics of Keynes is drawn was pretty much ignored other
than in undergraduate courses. [Blackford
(2016)]
It is obvious, or at least it should be
obvious, that something is wrong here. In point of fact, neither households
nor firms are constrained in their choices in the real world by a Walrasian
budget constraint at the point in time at which a choice must be made. They
are constrained by a) the value and liquidity of their assets, b) the
availability of sellers of goods at various prices, c) the availability of
buyers of goods at various prices, and d) in their access to credit. They
have no choice but to be guided by their expectations with regard to the
future, as Keynes insisted, but they are not constrained in the
present by what actually happens in the future. The rate at which
decision-making units receive income at the point in time at which a
decision must be made has no way of affecting that decision other than
through its effect on expectations as any consumer who has ever purchased a
home, a car, or has simply walked the aisles of a supermarket knows
implicitly, and as any businessman who has ever had to meet a payroll knows
implicitly as well. These are simple, empirical facts, and yet the
Walrasian budget constraint presupposes a) that all prices, quantities, and
incomes are known at the time a choice must be made, b) that all choices are
made simultaneously, and c) that those choices are constrained by income.
This sort of thing can correspond to actual behavior only in a world in
which expectations are always realized and markets always clear, that is,
a world in which the economic system is in always in static equilibrium.
[Clower] The Walrasian budget constraint has no relevance at all when the
system is not in static equilibrium. [Blackford (1975;
1976)] There is no
mystery about this. It is well known that Walrasian dynamics is empirically
irrelevant by virtue of its reliance on the mythical auctioneer of the
Walrasian tâtonnement/recontract assumption. [Jaffe]
It seems quite clear to me that the primary
cause of the financial crisis that began in 2007, and the reason mainstream
economists are unable to understand its cause or the nature of the disaster
that is developing in its wake, is the fact that mainstream economists have
ignored those aspects of Keynes’s general theory they were either unable or
unwilling to incorporate into their Walrasian models—the very aspects of
Keynes’s general theory that contains the essence of Keynes’ cause and
effect insights, based on the Marshallian paradigm, as to how the
economic system actually works in the real world. [Blackford
(2016)]
Specifically, mainstream economists have
ignored the fact that since output and employment are determine by effective
demand, and since effective demand is ultimately determined by expectations
with regard to future consumption, economic growth in the long run is
enhanced only by increasing consumption, and is inhibited by saving. As
a result, the economic models created by mainstream economists over the past
fifty or sixty years have ignore the long-run relationship between
consumption and effective demand, output, and employment and have been used
to justify deregulating the domestic and international financial systems,
cutting corporate taxes and taxes on the wealthy, increasing taxes on the
not so wealthy, reducing public investment in infrastructure and human
capital, eliminating usury laws, destroying labor unions, promoting the
adoption of private retirement accounts, converting Social Security from a
pay-as-you-go to a partial-prepayment system, neglecting the minimum wage,
and many other supposedly economically efficient policies that only make
sense within models that ignore the long-run relationship between
consumption and effective demand and assume that increasing saving enhances
economic growth. [Blackford (2014)]
The end result of these policies has been a
dramatic increase in our current account deficit along with an equally
dramatic increase in the concentration of income at the top of the income
distribution. This, in turn, has led to a situation in which saving in the
foreign sector has increased dramatically (by way of our increased current
account deficit) and at the top of the income distribution in the private
sector (by way of the higher propensity to save at the top of the income
distribution than at the bottom). This increase in saving in the foreign
sector and at the top of the income distribution in the private sector has
been partially offset over the past forty years by dissaving in the public
sector and at the bottom of the income distribution in the private sector.
It has also been accompanied by increases in investment as a result of
speculative bubbles in the commercial real estate markets in the 1980s, in
the markets for tech stocks and the dotcom and telecom industries in the
1990s, and in the housing market in the 2000s. [Blackford (2014)]
As a result, these policies have transformed
our economic system in such a way that, given the resulting current account
deficits and concentration of income at the top of the income distribution,
the mass markets for consumption goods have been undermined to the point
that it is no longer possible to achieve potential output and full
employment with the given state of mass-production technology in the absence
of a continual increase in debt relative to income. [Blackford (2014)] It
is the unsustainability of a continual increase in private-sector debt
relative to income that eventually led to the Crash of 2008, and it is the
inability to further increase debt relative to income through dissaving at
the bottom of the income distribution (or through continually increasing
debt relative to income in the public sector) combined with the lack of
speculative bubbles to stimulate investment that has led to the diminished
long-term expectation with regard to consumption that is the primal cause of
the economic stagnation we have experienced since 2007. [Blackford (2014)]
In other words, what we are facing today is the
fallout from Keynes’ long-period problem of saving.
[27]
The long-period problem of saving stands at the
very core of The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money.
In Keynes’ understanding of this problem, consumption creates its own
supply by stimulating investment—it does not work the other way around.
The logic of his argument is this:
1.
The accumulation of
capital over time has a tendency to reduce the MEC (i.e., investment demand
schedule) by reducing the prospective yield on additional units of
various capital assets as those assets become plentiful or even redundant.
2.
The failure of the
propensity to save to fall over time (that is, the failure of the propensity
to consume to increase) at a rate that will offset the effects of the fall
in the MEC as capital accumulates leads to a situation in which a fall in
the rate of interest is required in order to maintain the investment needed
to avoid unemployment.
3.
Since the rate of
interest is determined by the supply and demand for money there are limits
to the rate and the extent to which the rate of interest can fall. To the
extent the rate of interest lags behind the fall in the MEC the failure of
the propensity to save to fall (consumption to increase) as rapidly as the
MEC means that we can expect the economy to hit the lower bound set by the
rate of interest which will cause investment to fall below the level needed
to maintain full employment.
4.
Even if interest rates
were to adjust rapidly enough to avoid sporadic unemployment as capital
accumulates and the MEC falls in the short run, in the long run interest
rates must eventually be forced to zero (after allowing for risk) and can
fall no more. At that point the economy will stagnate as the MEC and net
saving and investment are forced to zero.
5.
As a result, the only
way the economic system can be kept going in the short run is through a
continual decrease in the propensity to save (increase in the propensity to
consume) or rate of interest, and, even then, the MEC and net saving must
eventually be forced to zero when there is so much capital that additional
increases will yield a negative prospective yield even if the propensity to
save is nil.[28]
I believe these ideas are not
incorporated within the worldview of mainstream economists because the
effects of capital accumulation and consumption on the prospective yield
of increases in the stock of capital are not incorporated into the Walrasian
models through which mainstream economists view the economic system. As a
result, these models present a vision of the economic system in which
monetary policy can be used to maintain full employment through stimulating
investment indefinitely into the future. This is a vision that presupposes
monetary policy can be effective in maintaining full employment even if the
entire country were to become paved over with concrete and every square inch
of land were to sport a factory or high-rise apartment building. It also presupposes
that the less we consume the sooner this end can be achieve. Keynes did not
share this vision of the long-period problem of saving. He saw clearly that
monetary policy would not be able to solve this problem in the long run.
Even though Keynes analyzed
the long-period problem of saving in excruciating detail throughout The General
Theory, one aspect of this problem that he did not examine in detail is
the vital role played by the flow of loanable funds in the economic system.
Even though the flow of loanable funds does not determine the rate of
interest and has very little to do with saving or investment,[29]
as Keynes clearly understood, he did not seem to understand that this does
not mean the flow of loanable funds can or should be ignored. Just as the flow of
investment changes the stock of capital in the economy over time, the flow
of loanable funds changes the stock of debt in the economy over time. And
even though changes in neither the stock of capital nor the stock
of debt affect the system in a significant way in the short-run, both can
have dramatic effects on the system in the long run.
There is nowhere to be found
in Keynes an analysis of the relationship between the flow of loanable funds
and the accumulation of debt comparable to that of his analysis of the
relationship between the flow of investment and the accumulation of
capital. Nor, as far as I know, is such an analysis to be found anywhere in
the writings of today’s mainstream economists (Fisher and Minsky, yes, among
today’s mainstream economists, I am not aware of any) in spite of the fact that:
1.
The creation of debt
plays an essential role in achieving full employment by providing a
mechanism through which purchasing power can be transferred from those who
have it and are unwilling to spend to those who do not have it and are
willing to borrow in order to spend. [Blackford (2014)]
2.
At the same time
the most serious depressions involve financial crises that have at their
root the inability to service debt. [Reinhart
and Rogoff]
3.
It is obvious, or at
least it seems obvious to me, that if the institutions of society are
such that an increasing debt relative to income is required to
achieve full employment in the short run, eventually debt service must
overwhelm the system and cause a financial crisis that will make it
impossible to sustain full employment in the long run. [Blackford (2014)]
It also seems obvious to me
that herein lies the cause of major financial crises and depressions, and,
yet, not only do mainstream economists seem to ignore the dynamics of
Keynes’ long-period problem of saving, they pay no attention to the
circumstances in which full employment can be achieved only through an
increase in debt relative to income in spite of the fact that this is
exactly the kind of situation that existed leading up to the Great
Depression and to the economic stagnation we see today. [Blackford (2014)]
The failure of mainstream
economists to understand Keynes’ analysis of the long-period problem of
saving—combined with the failure to understand the role played by
increasing debt relative to income in creating financial crises—has
resulted in the adoption of economic policies over the past forty years that
have inhibited consumption and promoted saving and debt to the extent that
we can no longer achieve full employment in the absence of an increase in
debt relative to income. This is a path that, in the long run, inevitably
leads to financial and economic crises that result in the kinds of economic,
social, and political problems we faced in the 1930s, the last time we saw
the kind of economic stagnation we see developing throughout the world
today.
I find this particularly
disturbing as few economists seem to realize that the US economy never
recovered from the Great Depression of the 1930s. What happened was the New
Deal came along, and the government completely took over the economic system
during World War II. It was the institutional changes that occurred as a
result of the New Deal and World War II that took us out of the Great
Depression, not a ‘recovery’ of the economy as such. The economic system
that emerged from the New Deal and World War II was no longer the laissez
faire system that led us into the Great Depression, and it was the
institutional changes that ended laissez faire that led to the
economic prosperity that followed the war—a prosperity that lasted until we
began to undo those changes in the 1970s as the long-period problem of
saving began to plague us again. [Blackford (2014)]
Institutional change as a
result of war is hardly an optimal way to approach this problem. It makes
much more sense to affect those changes directly, but this cannot be
accomplished in the absence of a clear understanding of the problem by
mainstream economists. There can be little hope for the future in this
regard until mainstream economists are able to look beyond their
mathematical models, put aside their ideological blinders [Blackford
(2013)], and look at the long-period problem of saving in a way that leads
to an overwhelming consensus within the discipline of economics to the
effect that Keynes’ conclusion with regard to this problem—that consumption
is the driving force for economic growth, not saving—is right and the
failure of mainstream economists, both Keynesians and anti-Keynesians alike,
to address this problem directly is a serious mistake. Only then will it be
possible to affect the institutional changes needed to solve the long-period
problem of saving directly in a way that, hopefully, will help to avoid yet
another world-wide conflagration that, in this nuclear age, is likely to be
even more devastating than the one that began on September 18, 1931 and
reached its climax on August 6th and 9th, 1945.[30]
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*
I would like to thank Gillian G. Garcia for her insightful and critical
comments that have helped immensely to clarify the issues for me. I
would also like to thank David Glasner for his knowledgeable, patient, and
open-minded responses to my comments on his blog, responses that motivated
me to attempt to resurrect the research I had done in the nineteen seventies
and eighties and bring it up to date as best I can. The result is this
paper and the Blackford
(2016) note. And then there is my sister, Kathryn
J. Ross, and wife, Dolores M. Coulter, to whom I am deeply indebted for
their relentless efforts to dismantle my run-on sentences and force me to
abide by the rules of grammar and spelling. Finally, I welcome this
opportunity to express my deepest appreciation to the mentors I have had
over the years: Mrs. Shegus, Mrs. Lockner, Miss Fortiner, Neil Cason,
Charles Shinn, Joseph T. Davis, William H. Whitemore, Barbara and Robert
Anderlik, Frank Jackson, William M. Armstrong, Florence A. Kirk, Louis R.
Miner, Louis Toller, Alfred C. Raphelson, Elston W. Van Steenburgh, Paul G.
Bradley, Virgil M. Bett, W. H. Locke Anderson, Daniel B. Suits, Kenneth E.
Boulding, Saul H. Hymans, Mitchell Harwitz, Cliff L. Lloyd, Ray Boddy, James
Crotty, Winston Chang, and Nagesh S. Revankar. Each of these individuals has
had a profoundly positive influence on my life, and I will be indebted to
each forever.
[1]
This controversy went far beyond the contributions of Robertson, Ohlin, and
Keynes to be discussed in this paper. For a survey of the literature in
this area see Haberler, Shackle, Johnson, and Tsiang. See also
Blackford (1986;
1987;
2016) for an extensive discussion of the issues of the LP/LF
controversy, especially (2016) for a discussion of the dynamic nature
Keynes’ methodology and the static nature of the loanable-funds theory.
[2] See Keynes:
It
should be obvious that the rate of interest cannot be a return to saving or
waiting as such. For if a man hoards his savings in cash, he earns no
interest, though he saves just as much as before. On the contrary, the mere
definition of the rate of interest tells us in so many words that the rate
of interest is the reward for parting with liquidity for a specified
period. For the rate of interest is, in itself; nothing more than the
inverse proportion between a sum of money and what can be obtained for
parting with control over the money in exchange for a debt[1]
for a stated period of time.[2].
Thus
the rate of interest at any time, being the reward for parting with
liquidity, is a measure of the unwillingness of those who possess money to
part with their liquid control over it. The rate of interest is not the
'price' which brings into equilibrium the demand for resources to invest
with the readiness to abstain from present consumption. It is the 'price'
which equilibrates the desire to hold wealth in the form of cash with the
available quantity of cash;—which implies that if the rate of interest were
lower, i.e. if the reward for parting with cash were diminished, the
aggregate amount of cash which the public would wish to hold would exceed
the available supply, and that if the rate of interest were raised, there
would be a surplus of cash which no one would be willing to hold. If this
explanation is correct, the quantity of money is the other factor, which, in
conjunction with liquidity-preference, determines the actual rate of
interest in given circumstances. Liquidity-preference is a potentiality or
functional tendency, which fixes the quantity of money which the public will
hold when the rate of interest is given; so that if r is the rate of
interest, M the quantity of money and L the function of
liquidity-preference, we have M = L(r). This is
where, and how, the quantity of money enters into the economic scheme.
[Keynes (1936, p. 107)]
[3]
See Robertson:
According to Mrs. Robinson,2 Mr. Keynes' theory has been
developed mainly in terms of short period analysis, but at times his purview
extends over centuries, and it may be convenient to conclude by examining
briefly the bearing of his liquidity preference formula on the long-period
problem of saving. This problem can be put in various forms, of which I
choose what is, I hope, alike the simplest and the best adapted to bring out
Mr. Keynes' points. Will an increased rate of saving which is not itself
hoarding (e.g. which takes the form of an increased demand for securities),
but which involves an actual diminution in the rate of expenditure on
consumable goods, lead to a progressive shrinkage in total money income?
In
one of his extremer passages (pp.211-213) Mr. Keynes appears to invoke his
formula in support of the view that such an event has no tendency to bring
down the rate of interest nor therefore to stimulate the formation of
capital equipment. For why, he asks, the quantity of money being unchanged,
should a fresh3 act of saving diminish the sum which it is
required to keep in liquid form at the existing rate of interest? The answer
surely emerges from the composite nature of liquidity preference. If the
event in question deprives the producers of consumption goods of income, it
reduces by the same act their ability to hold money for transaction and
precautionary purposes. It is only if they resist the switch in public
demand by continuing to indulge in expenditure, to offer employment, and
hence to hold (or cause to be held) money balances on the old scale, that
liquidity preference as defined will remain unchanged. Mr. Keynes' argument
in this passage seems to be a repetition in disguise of his old argument
that increased saving which is not itself hoarding is necessarily balanced
by the sale of securities on the part of entrepreneurs who are making losses
but are determined not to restrict the amount or change the character of
their output. In so far as this argument is ever valid, it is as valid when
employment is full to start with as when it is not—indeed, as Professor
Hayek pointed out long ago,4 it depends on the assumption that
employment will be kept full at all costs. . . . So long as such a
situation exists and is expected to continue, the rate of interest will, it
is true, not fall [emphasis added] nor the formation of capital
equipment be stimulated, but neither, so far as the mere maintenance of
income5 and employment goes, is it necessary that they should. If
such a situation does not exist, there is nothing in the doctrine of
liquidity preference to invalidate the common sense view that the increased
demand for securities will tend to raise their price.
There remains, however, a further point. Even tho the producers of
consumption goods take their medicine, nevertheless, if there exists for the
community as a whole a negatively inclined curve of "liquidity preference
proper" . . . some part of the additional savings devoted by individuals to
the purchase of securities will come to rest in the banking accounts of
those who, at the higher price of securities, desire to hold an increased
quantity of money. . . .
It
would, I think, be agreed by "orthodox” writers7 that this is a
situation calling for a progressive increase in the supply of money.
[Robertson (1936, pp .187-9)]
[4]
It is clear that Robertson did not have a loanable-funds theory of his own:
Mr.
Keynes complains1 that, in comparing2 his theory of
interest with “a common sense account of events in terms of supply and
demand for loanable funds,” I have given no indication of where an example
of the latter is to be found. In point of fact, I am afraid I was referring
primarily to the account which I had just attempted to give myself,3
and on which Mr. Keynes has found no space to comment. No doubt I had also
in mind the more elaborate analysis of Dr. Haberler, which was not, I admit,
then generally accessible.4 But these accounts are both, I
think, merely attempts to give a rather pedantic precision to the ordinary
view enshrined in such well-known studies of the capital and credit markets
as those of Lavington and Hawtrey, as well as in a thousand newspaper
articles. [Robertson (1937b, p. 428)]
As
has been noted, Robertson's analysis in his 1936 review (quoted in its
entirety in footnote
3 above) was framed solely in terms of the supply and demand of money.
[5] See Keynes:
The
liquidity-preference theory of the rate of interest which I have set forth
in my General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money makes the
rate of interest to depend on the present supply of money and the demand
schedule for a present claim on money in terms of a deferred claim on
money. This can be put briefly by saying that the rate of interest depends
on the demand and supply of money though this may be misleading, because it
obscures the answer to the question, demand for money in terms of what? The
alternative theory held, I gather, by Prof. Ohlin and his group of Swedish
economists, by Mr. Robertson and Mr. Hicks, and probably by many others,
makes it to depend, put briefly, on the demand and supply of credit or,
alternatively (meaning the same thing), of loans, at different rates of
interest. Some of the writers believe that my theory is on the whole the
same as theirs and mainly amounts to expressing it in a somewhat different
way.1 Nevertheless the theories are, I believe, radically opposed
to one another. [Keynes (1937b, p. 241)]
[6]
See Ohlin:
Evidently, the curves of demand and supply of credit, which are identical
with the curves of supply and demand for claims, are quite different from
but interrelated with [emphasis added] the curves which
refer to planned new investment and savings.3 The former curves
determine the prices of claims, i.e. the rates of interest, and the actual
credit transactions in the same way as prices and dealings are fixed on
commodity markets. Anyone who refuses to accept this analysis of the
pricing of claims must, I think, refute also the Marshallian supply and
demand curve analysis in toto.
Thus, there is a connection between the dealings in claims and the activity
of saving and investing
[emphasis added]. [Ohlin (1937b, pp. 425-6)]
[7]
See Keynes:
Before leaving this section it may be well to illustrate further the
conclusion stated above, that a fall in the price of consumption-goods due
to an excess of saving over investment does not in itself—if it is
unaccompanied by any change in the bearishness or bullishness of the public
or in the volume of savings-deposits, [emphasis added] or if
there are compensating changes in these two factors—require any opposite
change in the price of new investment-goods. For I believe that this
conclusion may be accepted some readers with difficulty.
It
follows from the fact that, on the above assumptions, the total value of the
investment-goods (new and old) coming on to the market for purchase out of
current savings is always exactly equal to the amount of such savings and is
irrespective of the current output of investment-goods. For if the value of
the new investment-goods is less than the volume of current savings,
entrepreneurs as a whole must be making losses exactly equal to the
difference. These losses, which represent a failure to receive cash up to
expectations from sales of current output, must be financed, and the
non-receipt of the expected cash receipts must be somehow made good. The
entrepreneurs can only make them good either by reducing their own
bank-deposits or selling some of their other capital assets. The
bank-deposits thus released and the securities thus sold are available for,
and are exactly equal to, the excess of current savings over the value of
new investment.
In
the more general case where the public sentiment towards securities or the
volume of savings-deposits is changing, then if the extent to which the
entrepreneurs have recourse to the expedient of releasing bank-deposits plus
the increase in savings-deposits allowed by the banking system just balances
the increase desire of the public to employ their resources in
bank-deposits, there is no reason for any change in the price of
securities. If the former is in excess of the latter, the price of
securities will tend to rise and if the latter is in excess of the former,
the price of securities will tend to fall. [Keynes (1930, pp. 145-6)]
The
exchange between Keynes and Hayek is a most interesting example of the kind
of paradigmatic debate discussed by Kuhn (Chapter VIII-XI), as is the entire
liquidity preference/loanable funds controversy itself.
[8]
Particular attention should be paid to Keynes' (1931b) reply to Hayek in
this regard, for in this reply Keynes carefully examined the obstacles that
arise as a result of the conflicting views of reality embodied in his and
Hayek's separate paradigms. See also Keynes (1931a). It should also be noted
that much of The General Theory is devoted to explaining the kinds of
paradigmatic differences discussed by Kuhn, and that these explanations have
not been well understood by mainstream economists.
[9]
See
Keynes:
An
increase of saving relatively to investment during any period means that the
savers find themselves at the end of the period with an increase of wealth,
which they can embark at their choice either in liquid or in non-liquid
assets, whilst the producers of consumption goods find themselves with an
equal decrease of wealth, which must cause them to part at their choice
either with liquid or with non-liquid assets which they previously
possessed.
Unless the propensity to hoard of the savers is different from the
propensity to hoard of the entrepreneurs
[emphasis
added]—and if it is different, it will mean that there is a change of
hoarding-propensity for the community as a whole, which change is as like
a priori to be in one direction as in the other—it follows that the
excess of saving has
in itself,
and
apart from its repercussions on the aggregate propensity to hoard, no
tendency to cause any change at all in the price of non-liquid assets.
[Keynes (1931a, p.415)]
[10]
See Keynes:
1 I
did not deal in detail in my book, and I am not dealing here, with the train
of events which ensues when, as a consequence of making losses,
entrepreneurs reduce their output. This is a long story, though not, I
think, fundamentally different, which I intend to treat in detail in due
course. Its only bearing on the present argument is that a change in output
affects the demand for active deposits, and may therefore (according to how
the banking system behaves) affect the supply of hoards. [Keynes (1931a,
p.418)]
[11]
See
Keynes:
When
I began to write my
Treatise on Money
I
was still moving along the traditional lines or regarding the influence of
money as something so to speak separate from the general theory of supply
and demand. . . . But my lack of emancipation from preconceived ideas showed
itself in what now seems to me to be the outstanding fault of the
theoretical parts of that work (namely, Books III and IV), that I failed to
deal thoroughly with the effects of changes in the level of output. My
so-called “fundamental equations” were an instantaneous picture [emphasis
added] taken on the assumption of a given output. [Keynes (1936, p.
4)]
[12]
Keynes explained
his liquidity-preference theory of interest as follows:
The
three divisions of liquidity-preference which we have distinguished above
may be defined as depending on (i) the transactions-motive, i.e. the need of
cash for the current transaction of personal and business exchanges; (ii)
the precautionary-motive, i.e. the desire for security as to the future cash
equivalent of a certain proportion of total resources; and (iii) the
speculative-motive, i.e. the object of securing profit from knowing better
than the market what the future will bring forth. . . .
It
may illustrate the argument to point out that, if the liquidity-preferences
due to the transactions-motive and the precautionary-motive are assumed to
absorb a quantity of cash which is not very sensitive to changes in the rate
of interest as such and apart from its reactions on the level of income, so
that the total quantity of money, less this quantity, is available for
satisfying liquidity-preferences due to the speculative-motive, the rate of
interest and the price of bonds have to be fixed at the level at which the
desire on the part of certain individuals to hold cash (because at that
level they feel 'bearish' of the future of bonds) is exactly equal to the
amount of cash available for the speculative-motive. . . .
As a
rule, we can suppose that the schedule of liquidity-preference relating the
quantity of money to the rate of interest is given by a smooth curve which
shows the rate of interest falling as the quantity of money is increased.
[Keynes (1936, pp. 108-9)]
[13]
It is worth noting that the
transactions and precautionary demands for money were described by Keynes in
1937 as arising from “the time-lags between the receipt and disposal of
income by the public and also between the receipt by entrepreneurs of their
sale-proceeds and the payment by them of wages, etc.” [Keynes (1937b,
p.319)]. (See also Keynes (1937c, p.368).) This is a rather passive
description of this demand, but it is a mistake to consider the demand for
money associated with income payments as “passive acceptance of money”
[Tsiang (1980, p. 475)]. This demand is undoubtedly far more intense than
the demands that arise from other motives given the fact that firms forego
the acquisition of these balances at the risk of defaulting on their
income payments and other contractual obligations and households forego the
acquisition of these balances at the risk of being forced to forgo consumption.
[14]
It should not be surprising that
the only way to make sense out of the loanable-funds theory is to define the
behavior of the supply and demand for loanable-funds schedules in terms of
the supply and demand for money. After all, there are only two ways to
purchase something, with money or with borrowed money, that is, with
credit. That means that when demanders do not otherwise receive the money
needed to finance their desired or required expenditures they have no place
to turn if they are to maintain their expenditures except to the credit
(i.e., loanable-funds) market.
In
June of 1937 Keynes (1937b, p.245) pointed out that Ohlin (1937a) had
defined his loanable-funds theory in ex post terms. Ohlin responded
(1937b) that he had meant to define this theory in ex ante terms. As
a result of this exchange a consensus emerged within the discipline to the
effect that Keynes was confused in his criticism of Ohlin. (See
Leijonhufvud (1968, pp.62-3).) This consensus was a mistake. As should be
clear from the above discussion there is no explanation of any kind as to
why the rate of interest should respond to Ohlin’s ex ante savings
and investment schedules in the ceteris paribus situation examined in
the text above. See also Blackford (1987;
2016)).
Keynes can only be held accountable for understanding what Ohlin actually
said about this terminology, not what others think Ohlin meant to say.
There can be no doubt that what Ohlin actually said in June 1937 (1937a) was
unclear. Ohlin admitted this in September 1937 (1937b, pp.423; 424n; 425n;
427n), and he did in fact give the term ex ante a purely temporal
connotation, i.e., meaning “'in advance of' or 'in anticipation of’. See
Leijonhufvud (1968, p. 62n) and cf. Ohlin (1937a, p.64). In addition,
Ohlin's assertion in September 1937 “that demand and supply curves, which
express the planned sales purchases at different possible prices during a
certain future period . . . are ex-ante concepts and indicate
alternative purchase and sales plans” (1937b, p. 423) and that “Ex-post
we have only the point of intersection of the curves, ex ante we have
the whole curves, which determine where the point of intersection will be”
[1937b, p. 424n] did not help to clarify the situation, for Ohlin did not
explain why he assumed the intersection of ex ante supply and demand
curves which indicate alternative purchases and sales plans during a future
period determine realized prices and quantities in the future period rather
than the actual supply and demand curves that exist in the period in which
the prices and quantities are actually realized. Ohlin's position on this
issue would seem to imply that expectations are always realized—an
assumption that Ohlin most certainly did not intend, and one that he most
certainly would not have wished to defend. But even if it is granted, and
there is no reason it should not be, that what Ohlin intended was the
behavioral interpretation of saving and investing rather than definitional
relationship (which was, in fact, Keynes’ interpretation, cf. Leijonhufvud
(1968, p.63); Klein (p.116); and Keynes (1937b, pp. 249-50)) and that there
was no fundamental disagreement between Ohlin and Keynes' Chapters 5 and 6,
it should be clear from the above that there is no way to salvage the
loanable-funds theory along the lines Ohlin was attempting to salvage it.
The
point is that Keynes was correct on the issues of substance in the
liquidity-preference/loanable-funds controversy, and the reason for the
difficulties in communication arose from the fact that the vast majority of
economists simply failed to grasp the fundamental contradiction of the
saving-investment/loanable-funds theory of interest in that the arguments of
the proponents of the loanable-funds theory presuppose some sort of
tâtonnement /recontract process and Keynes’ arguments do not. Keynes
assumed the choices made by decision-making units were consistent with the
actual constraints on their behavior rather than with a mythical Walrasian
budget constraint. See Blackford
(2016), c.f.
Blackford (1975) and Clower.
[15]
See Blackford (1983;
1986;
1987;
2016) for a
formal analysis of the attempts by anti-Keynesians to deny the central role
of money in determining the rate of interest and the way in which this made
their analysis static while Keynes’ liquidity-preference theory made it
possible for him to establish cause and effect in a way that made his
analysis dynamic. It must also be noted at this point that it has been
argued by both Keynesians (e.g., Hansen, 1951) and non-Keynesian (e.g.,
Horwich, Chapter X) alike that Keynes' Chapter 14 indeterminacy criticism of
the classical theory of interest applies to his own theory of interest as
well. That criticism was as follows:
For
the classical theory, as can be seen from the above quotations, assumes that
it can then proceed to consider the effect on the rate of interest of (e.g.)
a shift in the demand curve for capital, without abating or modifying its
assumption as to the amount of the given income out of which the savings are
to be made. The independent variables of the classical theory of the rate of
interest are the demand curve for capital and the influence of the rate of
interest on the amount saved out of a given income; and when (e.g.) the
demand curve for capital shifts, the new rate of interest, according to this
theory, is given by the point of intersection between the new demand curve
for capital and the curve relating the rate of interest to the amounts which
will be saved out of the given income. The classical theory of the rate of
interest seems to suppose that, if the demand curve for capital shifts or if
the curve relating the rate of interest to the amounts saved out of a given
income shifts or if both these curves shift, the new rate of interest will
be given by the point of intersection of the new positions of the two
curves. But this is a nonsense theory. For the assumption that income is
constant is inconsistent with the assumption that these two curves can shift
independently of one another. If either of them shift, then, in general,
income will change; with the result that the whole schematism based on the
assumption of a given income breaks down. [Keynes (1936, p. 114)]
It
should be clear from the above that the notion that this criticism of the
classical theory applies to Keynes’ theory arises from a failure to grasp
the nature of Keynes' criticism. It is, of course, true that if either the
savings or investment or the money supply or demand schedule shifts the
resulting change in income will cause all of these schedules to shift (save,
perhaps, the supply of money) but—as Keynes makes perfectly clear in his
discussion of the diagram that that follows this passage [Keynes (1936,
pp.114-6)]—this misses the point of Keynes’ criticism of the
savings/investment theory.
Keynes demonstrated that it is nonsense to assume that, given income and the
supply and demand for money, savers and investors will be able to adjust the
rate of interest so as to equate saving and investment in response to a
change in either the saving or the investment schedule because there
exists no causal mechanism by which savers and investors can perform this
task. [Blackford
(2016)] Given the supply and demand for money, the
rate of interest cannot change in response to a change in either saving or
investment until income changes, and a change in income must cause
the savings schedule to shift (and as we will see, probably the investment
schedule as well) before the rate of interest can change.
This
indeterminacy criticism most definitely does not apply to Keynes' liquidity
preference theory. There is nothing to prevent wealth holders from
adjusting their portfolios of assets in such a way as to cause the
rate of interest to adjust to equate the supply and demand for money (i.e.,
liquidity) in response to a change in one of these schedules given income,
savings, investment, or any other flow variable, and as income changes
and these schedules shift over time there is nothing to prevent the rate of
interest from continuing to adjust in this way to equate the supply and
demand for money.
[16] See Keynes (1936, Chapter 5 and
6), and:
All
production is for the purpose of ultimately satisfying a consumer. Time
usually elapses, however—and sometimes much time—between the incurring of
costs by the producer (with the consumer in view) and the purchase of the
output by the ultimate consumer. Meanwhile the entrepreneur (including both
the producer and the investor in this description) has to form the best
expectations he can as to what the consumers will be prepared to pay when he
is ready to supply them (directly or indirectly) after the elapse of what
may be a lengthy period and he has no choice but to be guided by these
expectations, if he is to produce at all by processes which occupy time.
These expectations, upon which business decisions depend, fall into two
groups. . . . The first type is concerned with the price which a
manufacturer can expect to get for his “finished” output at the time when he
commits himself to starting the process which will produce it. . . . The
second type is concerned with what the entrepreneur can hope to earn in the
shape of future returns if he purchases (or, perhaps, manufactures)
“finished” output as an addition to his capital equipment. We may call the
former short-term expectation and the latter long-term expectation.
Thus
the behaviour of each individual firm in deciding its daily2
output will be determined by its short-term expectations—expectations as to
the cost of output on various possible scales and expectations as to the
sale-proceeds of this output. . . . It is upon these various expectations
that the amount of employment which the firms offer will depend. The
actually realized results of the production and sale of output will only be
relevant to employment in so far as they cause a modification of subsequent
expectations. . . . Thus, on each and every occasion of such a decision,
the decision will be made . . . in the light of the current expectations of
prospective costs and sale-proceeds [emphasis added]. [Keynes
(1936, p. 37)]
See
also Blackford
(2016).
[17]
See
Keynes (1936, Chapter 6). It is interesting to note that in December 1933
Hawtrey explained his view of the psychological dependence of income on
expectation to Robertson:
The
relation between income and expenditure is a psychological one; the
recipient of income regulates his expenditure by his receipts. And it is by
no means true that the disposal of income, interpreted in this sense, only
occurs at an interval after receipt. Indeed it is more often true that
expenditure on consumption is regulated with reference to future income than
to past income. The purpose of a cash balance is to permit of expenditure
being in some degree independent of receipts. It is a capital fund, and in
deciding what drafts to make upon it, the owner considers primarily what his
future current receipts are likely to be. [Hawtrey (1933, p.702)]
Hawtrey then pointed out the obvious with regard to Robertson’s (1933a)
refusal to take into account the dependence of income on expectations:
It
is theoretically possible so to adjust prices that there is no change in
stocks of goods. But why does Mr. Robertson persist in adopting this
hypothesis? It is utterly out of accord with the facts of practical life.
It implies that retail prices are exactly and instantaneously adjusted to
any change in demand every day. The introduction of so extravagant
an assumption places all his analysis on an abstract plane from which it
cannot be redeemed till the assumption is modified. [Hawtrey (1933, p.704)]
In
response, Robertson argued that he found his own formulation “easier than
Mr. Hawtrey’s conception of consumers’ outlay, which is defined as
expenditure ‘out of income’ though the income which it is ‘out of’ may
apparently not yet have been received.” [Robertson (1933b, p. 711)]
Hawtrey's position is very much akin to that of Keynes’, and Robertson’s
response to Hawtrey gets to the heart of the fundamental difference between
Robertson’s and Keynes’ methodologies, namely, that Robertson’s analysis is
static and Keynes’ analysis is dynamic. See
Blackford (1987; 2016).
[18]
See footnote 16 above. The
importance of this psychological dependence of income on expectations is
emphasized by Keynes in his discussion of the relationship between net
income and consumption. In defining net income Keynes (1936, Chapter 6)
carefully adjusted for all of those factors that are either “voluntary”
(i.e., user cost) or if not voluntary at least “not unexpected” (i.e.,
supplementary costs), and he explicitly excluded consideration of those
factors that are “unforeseen” (i.e., windfalls). By defining net income in
this way Keynes was able to draw a clear distinction (at least conceptually)
between the way in which net income (defined in terms of expected and not
unexpected results) and windfalls (defined in terms of unexpected results)
affect decision making behavior with regard to consumption:
The
causal significance of net income lies in the psychological influence of the
magnitude of [supplementary costs] on the amount of current consumption,
since net income is what we suppose the ordinary man to reckon his available
income to be when he is deciding how much to spend on current consumption.
This is not, of course, the only factor of which he takes account when he is
deciding how much to spend. It makes a considerable difference, for
example, how much windfall gain or loss he is making on capital account.
But there is a difference between the supplementary cost and a windfall loss
in that changes in the former are apt to affect him in just the same way as
changes in his gross profit, . . . whereas, although the windfall loss (or
gain) enters into his decisions, it does not enter into them on the same
scale—a given windfall loss does not have the same effect as an equal
supplementary cost. [Keynes (1936, p. 44)]
Part
of the reason for the difference is that decisions concerning consumption in
Keynes' general theory are made with reference to existing wealth (i.e.,
"capital account”) on the basis of currently held expectations with regard
to net income. Actually realized income inclusive of windfalls affects
these decisions only to the extent it has an effect on wealth held and
expectations formed after the income is (or is not) actually realized.
It
is also worth noting that the importance of expectations is implicit in
Keynes' definition of income in the Treatise where income is assumed
to include normal remuneration and exclude windfalls. (See Keynes (1930,
Chapter 9).) The concept (as opposed to the definition) of income employed
by Keynes in The General Theory is largely the same as the concept of
income employed by Keynes in the Treatise. Keynes did not attempt to
provide an operational definition for his concept of income, and no attempt
shall be made to do so here except to note that this concept is quite broad,
and there is, as far as I can see, no fundamental inconsistency between
Keynes' theoretical construct and Freidman's permanent income hypothesis. I
find Freidman’s hypothesis to fit well within the context of Keynes' general
theory. Cf., Keynes (1936, pp.77-8; Chapter 6) and Friedman.
[19] See footnote 16 above and:
The
trouble arises, therefore, because the act of saving implies, not a
substitution for present consumption of some specific additional consumption
which requires for its preparation just as much immediate economic activity
as would have been required by present consumption equal in value to the sum
saved, but a desire for 'wealth' as such, that is for a potentiality of
consuming an unspecified article at an unspecified time. The absurd, though
almost universal, idea that an act of individual saving is just as good for
effective demand as an act of individual consumption, has been fostered by
the fallacy, much more specious than the conclusion derived from it, that an
increased desire to hold wealth, being much the same thing as an increased
desire to hold investments, must, by increasing the demand for investments,
provide a stimulus to their production; so that current investment is
promoted by individual saving to the same extent as present consumption is
diminished.
It is of this fallacy that it is most difficult to disabuse men's minds
[emphasis added]. . It
comes from believing that the owner of wealth desires a capital-asset as
such, whereas what he really desires is its prospective yield [emphasis
added]. Now, prospective yield wholly depends on the expectation of
future effective demand in relation to future conditions of supply. If,
therefore, an act of saving does nothing to improve prospective yield, it
does nothing to stimulate investment [emphasis added]. . . . The
creation of new wealth wholly depends on the prospective yield of the new
wealth reaching the standard set by the current rate of interest. The
prospective yield of the marginal new investment is not increased by the
fact that someone wishes to increase his wealth, since the prospective yield
of the marginal new investment depends on the expectation of a demand for a
specific article at a specific date.
Nor
do we avoid this conclusion by arguing that what the owner of wealth desires
is not a given prospective yield but the best available prospective yield,
so that an increased desire to own wealth reduces the prospective yield with
which the producers of new investment have to be content. For this
overlooks the fact that there is always an alternative to the ownership
of real capital-assets, namely the ownership of money and debts; so that the
prospective yield with which the producers of new investment have to be
content cannot fall below the standard set by the current rate of interest
[emphasis added]. [Keynes (1936, pp. 134-5)]
[20]
See Keynes:
New
capital-investment can only take place in excess of current
capital-disinvestment if future expenditure on consumption is expected to
increase. Each time we secure to-day’s equilibrium by increased
investment we are aggravating the difficulty of securing equilibrium
to-morrow [emphasis added]. A diminished propensity to consume
to-day can only be accommodated to the public advantage if an increased
propensity to consume is expected to exist some day. . . .
The
obstacle to a clear understanding is . . . an inadequate appreciation of the
fact that capital is not a self-subsistent entity existing apart from
consumption. On the contrary, every weakening in the propensity to
consume regarded as a permanent habit must weaken the demand for capital as
well as the demand for consumption [emphasis added]. [Keynes
(1936, p. 71)]
And:
An
act of individual saving means—so to speak—a decision not to have dinner
to-day. But it does not necessitate a decision to have dinner or to buy a
pair of boots a week hence or a year hence or to consume any specified thing
at any specified date. Thus it depresses the business of preparing to-day’s
dinner without stimulating the business of making ready for some future act
of consumption. It is not a substitution of future consumption-demand for
present consumption-demand,—it is a net diminution of such demand.
Moreover, the expectation of future consumption is so largely based on
current experience of present consumption that a reduction in the latter is
likely to depress the former, with the result that the act of saving will
not merely depress the price of consumption-goods and leave the marginal
efficiency of existing capital unaffected, but may actually tend to depress
the latter also [emphasis added]. In this event it may reduce
present investment-demand as well as present consumption-demand. [Keynes
(1936, p. 134)]
[21]
It should also be noted that in
the passage quoted in footnote 25 below Robertson asserts that the net
result of his decision to save rather than spend money on new clothes will
be “an increase, perhaps, in capital outlay.1” and in the
accompanying footnote he stated that “Even this is not certain, since the
demand of the tailor, weaver, etc., for machines will decline.” This is, of
course, precisely the issue raised by Keynes (see footnote 20 above). In
retelling this tale in his 1957 Lectures, Robertson reverted to his
original 1936 position that there will be an increase in capital outlay in
this situation, and at no point did Robertson explain why he believed the
potential fall in the investment demand schedule will either not occur or
will be more than offset by a fall in the rate of interest. Nor did
Robertson explain why he believed monetary policy will necessarily be
an effective instrument in offsetting a fall in the investment demand
schedule in light of Keynes’ objections to this belief that will be
discussed in the conclusion below. Robertson was simply unable to perceive
the importance of Keynes’ arguments with regard to these issues, and the
reason is, to a large extent, due to Robertson refused to accept the
validity of Hawtrey’s 1933 admonitions quoted in footnoted 17 above. Cf.
Kuhn (Chapters VIII-XI).[22]
See F. Modigliani (p. 45) and
the explanation of the static nature of intraperiod analysis implicit in
Robertson's methodology to be found in
Blackford (1983;
1986;
1987;
2016).
It should be noted that Leijonhufvud (Chapter II) also discusses this
problem, but, unfortunately, the theme of his discussion is that Keynes'
methodology is subject to the limitations of this kind of analysis. That
this is false should be clear from the fact that what Keynes actually said
in The General Theory is pure nonsense from the perspective of the
methodological straight jacket into which Leijonhufvud attempts to force
it. Keynes’ methodology is that of continuous time analysis and is dynamic,
and there can be no doubt that Keynes fully understood the inadequacies of
Robertson's methodology as witnessed by Keynes’ 1936 evaluation of
Robertson's approach to economic theory within the context of his (i.e.,
Keynes') general theory:
Mr.
D. H. Robertson has defined to-day's income as being equal to yesterday's
consumption plus investment, so that to-day's saving, in his sense,
is equal to yesterday's investment plus the excess of yesterday's
consumption over to-day's consumption. On this definition saving can exceed
investment, namely, by the excess of yesterday's income (in my sense) over
to-day's income. Thus when Mr. Robertson says that there is an excess of
saving over investment, he means literally the same thing as I mean when I
say that income is falling, and the excess of saving in his sense is
exactly equal to the decline of income in my sense. If it were true that
current expectations were always determined by yesterday's realized results,
to-day's effective demand would be equal to yesterday's income [emphasis
added]. Thus Mr. Robertson's method might be regarded as an alternative
attempt to mine (being, perhaps, a first approximation to it) to make the
same distinction, so vital for causal [emphasis added]
analysis, that I have tried to make by the contrast between effective demand
and income. [Keynes (1936, p. 57)]
This
passage is of particular relevance to the above, for Keynes defined
effective demand as the “income (or proceeds) which entrepreneurs
expect [emphasis added] to receive” (1936, p. 42), and it is
effective demand that is assumed to determine employment and output
decisions in Keynes’ general theory. (See Keynes (1936, Chapter 3 and 6).)
Within this context, the assumption that the value of output produced as
perceived by decision-making units is equal to the value of output sold is
not only equivalent to the assumption that expectations are unit elastic and
adjust instantaneously to changes in sales, it is also equivalent to the
assumption that each period's effective demand is equal to the previous
period's realized results. (See Blackford (1986;
1987) It is clear from the
above passage that Keynes’ fundamental objection to Robertson's methodology
rests with this assumption.
It
should also be noted that others who have in one way or another attempted to
utilize Robertson's methodology (e.g., Tsiang, Horwich, and Kohn) have, for
the most part, ignored the complications that arise as a result of this
assumption. Kohn, for example, seems to realize (only “seems” because this
problem is only likely to arise in the very situations in which Kohn argues
that it is not likely to arise) that if firms are faced with an unexpected
fall in demand, they may be unable to meet their wage payments given the
assumptions of his analysis. Kohn assumes this problem away (p. 866n), but
at no point does he explain why he assumes firms are willing to sell at a
loss today when their expectations are such that they can borrow to
accumulate inventories today and sell the same goods at a profit tomorrow.
There is no way to avoid this assumption within the context of the
Robertsonian methodology, and there is no way to make sense out of it as was
pointed out to Robertson by Hawtrey in 1933 as quoted in footnoted 17 above.
Keynes explained the demand for money in anticipation of planned investment
expenditure as “a special case of the finance required by any productive
process” (1937b, p.247).
[23] As was noted above, even in the
hypothetical case in which the fall in sales leads to a fall in
precautionary balances or to a decision by firms to forego a portion of
their income payments before their expectations changed, it would be the
implicit fall in the demand for money that is the direct cause of the
concomitant fall in the rate of interest in this hypothetical situation and
not the increase in thriftiness itself. Even in this case the increase
in thriftiness must work through its effect on the demand for money. (See
Keynes in footnote 9 above and 25 below.) This point is important because
it brings out a potential source of confusion in a paper by Hugh Rose
(1957). In this paper Rose identifies the loanable-funds theory of interest
with a fall in precautionary balances held by firms in response to
unintended inventory accumulations. This, I believe, is a mistake, for what
Rose has done through this identification is to define the behavior of the
loanable funds so as to be determined by the supply and demand for
money. The resulting potential for confusion is very great, for this
definition obscures the issues that separated Robertson and Keynes in that
it provides a semantic rationalization of the loanable-funds theory
that obscures the substantive absurdity of this theory. See
Blackford (1987;
2016).
[24]
According to Keynes, transactions balances associated with expenditures of
all kinds must be financed as well as holdings of precautionary and
speculative balances, and investment expenditures are no exception:
Planned investment—i.e. investment ex-ante—may have to secure its
“financial provision” before the investment takes place; that is to say,
before the corresponding saving has taken place . . . . There has,
therefore, to be a technique to bridge this gap between the time when the
decision to invest is taken and the time when the correlative investment and
saving actually occur.
This
service may be provided either by the new issue market or by the
banks;—which it is, makes no difference.1 Even if the
entrepreneur avails himself of the financial provision which he has arranged
beforehand pari passu with his actual expenditure on the investment .
. . it will still be true that the market's commitments will be in excess of
actual saving to date and there is a limit to the extent of the commitments
which the market will agree to enter into in advance.2 But if he
accumulates a cash balance beforehand . . . then an accumulation of
unexpected or incompletely executed investment-decisions may occasion for
the time being an extra special demand for cash. To avoid confusion with
Prof. Ohlin's sense of the word, let us call this advance provision of cash
the 'finance’ required by the current decisions to invest. . . . [Keynes
(1937b, pp. 246-8)]
Keynes used the term “finance” to describe this special kind of transactions
demand for money that may arise from the accumulation of money balances in
anticipation of the need to finance planned expenditures in the future. See
Blackford (1983;
1986; 2016).
[25] See footnotes 2, 7, 16, 19, and
especially 20 above and Keynes:
If
saving consisted not merely in abstaining from present consumption but in
placing simultaneously a specific order for future consumption, the effect
might indeed be different. . . . [H]owever, an individual decision to save
does not, in actual fact, involve the placing of any specific forward order
for consumption, but merely the cancellation of a present order. Thus,
since the expectation of consumption is the only raison d'être of
employment, there should be nothing paradoxical in the conclusion that a
diminished propensity to consume has cet. par. a depressing effect on
employment. [Keynes (1936, p. 134)]
Cf.
Robertson:
Let
me state in my own language what I believe the Keynesian is trying to
convey. Suppose that I decide to spend £100 of my income on securities,
instead of as hitherto on fine clothes. My action destroys £100 of the
income of my tailor and his employees and depletes their money balances by
£100. It also raises the price of securities, i.e. lowers the rate of
interest. This fall in the rate of interest tempts some people to sell
securities and to hold increased money balances instead. Thus the fall in
the rate of interest is checked, and not all of my £100 succeeds therefore
in finding its way through the markets for old securities and new issues, on
to the markets for labor and commodities. Thus owing to the existence of
this siding or trap, my act of thrift does not succeed, as "classical"
theory asserts that it will, in creating incomes and money balances for
builders and engineers equal to those which it has destroyed for tailors.
The net result of the whole proceeding is a fall in the rate of interest and
an increase, perhaps, in capital outlay1 but a net decrease in
the total of money incomes and (probably) of employment.
The
argument is formally perfectly valid; and the practical inference that, if
existing money is going to ground in this way, it is prima facie the
duty of the banking system to create more money. . . . Here I will only say
that it seems to me a most misleading way of expressing the causal train of
events to say, as is sometimes done, that the act of thrift lowers the rate
of interest through lowering total incomes. I should say that it lowers the
rate of interest quite directly through swelling the money stream of demand
for securities; that this fall in the rate of interest increases the
proportion of resources over which people wish to keep command in monetary
form; and that this increase in turn is a cause of there being a net decline
in total money income, i.e. of money incomes not expanding in one sector to
the extent that they are contracting in the other. [Robertson (1940, pp.
18-9)]
This
is, clearly, not what Keynes was trying to convey. Robertson’s action does
not destroy £100 of the tailor’s income. It only destroys £100 of the
tailor’s sales as it depletes his money balances by £100. The
tailor’s income will not change until his expectations change. In the
meantime, unless the tailor’s demand for money changes he will be
forced to sell an additional £100 of securities (or other assets the
purchase of which will have to be financed) in order to restore his money
balances to meet his payment obligations, and there is no reason for the
price of securities to change if his demand for money does not change.
If his demand for money does change there will, of course, be a change in
the rate of interest in this situation, but it is the change in the
demand for money, not the increase in saving, that will cause the
rate of interest to change. On at least four separate occasions Robertson
considered Keynes’ argument as to the nature of this transitional situation
[Robertson (1936, p.178; 1937b, p. 435; 1940, p.18; 1957, p.68-9)], and on
each of these occasions Robertson admitted the validity of Keynes' argument
as he (Robertson) dismissed it out of hand. Robertson was simply incapable
of understanding the importance of the causal effects of expectations
on the choices of decision-making units. This intellectual blind spot in
Robertson’s vision was clearly pointed out by Hawtrey in 1933 in the
passages quoted in footnote 17 above, and, Robertson’s response to Hawtrey’s
criticism indicates the extent to which Robertson was simply incapable of
seeing the light in this regard.
[26] See Blackford
(2016) and Keynes:
The
object of our analysis is, not to provide a machine, or method of blind
manipulation, which will furnish an infallible answer, but to provide
ourselves with an organized and orderly method of thinking out particular
problems; and, after we have reached a provisional conclusion by isolating
the complicating factors one by one, we then have to go back on ourselves
and allow, as well as we can, for the probable interactions of the factors
amongst themselves. This is the nature of economic thinking. Any other way
of applying our formal principles of thought (without which, however, we
shall be lost in the wood) will lead us into error. It is a great fault of
symbolic pseudo-mathematical methods of formalizing a system of economic
analysis . . . that they expressly assume strict independence between the
factors involved and lose all their cogency and authority if this hypothesis
is disallowed; whereas, in ordinary discourse, where we are not blindly
manipulating but know all the time what we are doing and what the words
mean, we can keep ‘at the back of our heads’ the necessary reserves and
qualifications and the adjustments which we shall have to make later on, in
a way in which we cannot keep complicated partial differentials ‘at the
back’ of several pages of algebra which assume that they all vanish. Too
large a proportion of recent ‘mathematical’ economics are merely
concoctions, as imprecise as the initial assumptions they rest on, which
allow the author to lose sight of the complexities and interdependencies of
the real world in a maze of pretentious and unhelpful symbols. [Keynes
(1936, p. 188)]
The
typical Keynesian models of the 1960s and 1970s took the form of various
simultaneous equations, static equilibrium models spread throughout the
literature and found in one form or another in almost any macroeconomic text
book. These models have very little to do with Keynes and are, for the most
part, extensions of Walras. See Rose, Clower, Leijonhufvud, and Davidson.
While this paper is about the long-period problem of saving, it is important
to at least acknowledge that what may be called “the long-period problem of
capital formation” is equally important. See Keynes:
[27]
While this paper is about the long-period problem of saving,
it is important to at least acknowledge that what may be called “the
long-period problem of capital formation” is equally important. See Keynes:
It may be convenient at this point to say a word about the important schools
of thought which maintain, from various points of view, that the chronic
tendency of contemporary societies to under-employment is to be traced to
under-consumption;—that is to say, to social practices and to a distribution
of wealth which result in a propensity to consume which is unduly low.
In existing conditions . . . where the volume of investment is unplanned and
uncontrolled, subject to the vagaries of the marginal efficiency of capital
as determined by the private judgment of individuals ignorant or
speculative, and a long-term rate of interest which seldom or never falls
below a conventional level, these schools of thought are, as guides to
practical policy, undoubtedly in the right. For in such conditions there is
no other means of raising the average level of employment to a more
satisfactory level. If it is impracticable materially to increase
investment, obviously there is no means of securing a higher level of
employment except by increasing consumption.
Practically I only differ from these schools of thought in thinking that
they may lay a little too much emphasis on increased consumption at a time
when there is still much social advantage to be obtained from increased
investment. . .
Moreover, I should readily concede that the wisest course is to advance on
both fronts at once. Whilst aiming at a socially controlled rate of
investment with a view to a progressive decline in the marginal efficiency
of capital, I should support at the same time all sorts of policies for
increasing the propensity to consume. For it is unlikely that full
employment can be maintained, whatever we may do about investment, with the
existing propensity to consume. There is room, therefore, for both policies
to operate together;—to promote investment and, at the same time, to promote
consumption, not merely to the level which with the existing propensity to
consume would correspond to the increased investment, but to a higher level
still. [Keynes (1936, p. 202-3)]
and
In some other respects the foregoing theory is moderately conservative
in its implications. For whilst it indicates the vital importance of
establishing certain central controls in matters which are now left in the
main to individual initiative, there are wide fields of activity which are
unaffected. The State will have to exercise a guiding influence on the
propensity to consume partly through its scheme of taxation, partly by
fixing the rate of interest, and partly, perhaps, in other ways.
Furthermore, it seems unlikely that the influence of banking policy on the
rate of interest will be sufficient by itself to determine an optimum rate
of investment. I conceive, therefore, that a somewhat comprehensive
socialisation of investment will prove the only means of securing an
approximation to full employment; though this need not exclude all manner
of compromises and of devices by which public authority will co-operate
with private initiative. But beyond this no obvious case is made out for a
system of State Socialism which would embrace most of the economic life of
the community. It is not the ownership of the instruments of production
which it is important for the State to assume. If the State is able to
determine the aggregate amount of resources devoted to augmenting the
instruments and the basic rate of reward to those who own them, it will
have accomplished all that is necessary. Moreover, the necessary measures
of socialisation can be introduced gradually and without a break in the
general traditions of society.
[Keynes (1936, p. 238)]
Cf.
Blackford (2014, Chapter 12).
[28]
Cf. Keynes:
If
there is an increased investment in any given type of capital during any
period of time, the marginal efficiency of that type of capital will
diminish as the investment in it is increased, partly because the
prospective yield will fall as the supply of that type of capital is
increased [emphasis added], and partly because, as a rule,
pressure on the facilities for producing that type of capital will cause its
supply price to increase; the second of these factors being usually the more
important in producing equilibrium in the short run, but
the longer the period in
view the
more does
the first
factor
take its
place [emphasis added]. [Keynes (1936, p. 88)]
And:
We
have seen that capital has to be kept scarce enough in the long-period to
have a marginal efficiency which is at least equal to the rate of interest
for a period equal to the life of the capital, as determined by
psychological and institutional conditions. What would this involve for a
society which finds itself so well equipped with capital that its marginal
efficiency is zero and would be negative with any additional investment; yet
possessing a monetary system, such that money will 'keep' and involves
negligible costs of storage and safe custody, with the result that in
practice interest cannot be negative; and, in conditions of full employment,
disposed to save?
If,
in such circumstances, we start from a position of full employment,
entrepreneurs will necessarily make losses if they continue to offer
employment on a scale which will utilise the whole of the existing stock of
capital. Hence the stock of capital and the level of employment will have
to shrink until the community becomes so impoverished that the aggregate of
saving has become zero, the positive saving of some individuals or groups
being offset by the negative saving of others. Thus for a society such as
we have supposed, the position of equilibrium, under conditions of
laissez-faire, will be one in which employment is low enough and the
standard of life sufficiently miserable to bring savings to zero. More
probably there will be a cyclical movement round this equilibrium position.
For if there is still room for uncertainty about the future, the marginal
efficiency of capital will occasionally rise above zero leading to a 'boom',
and in the succeeding 'slump' the stock of capital may fall for a time below
the level which will yield a marginal efficiency of zero in the long run.
Assuming correct foresight, the equilibrium stock of capital which will have
a marginal efficiency of precisely zero will, of course, be a smaller stock
than would correspond to full employment of the available labor; for it will
be the equipment which corresponds to that proportion of unemployment which
ensures zero saving. [Keynes (1936, p. 138)]
[29]
In spite of the fact proponents of the loanable-funds theory seemed to
believe that the flow of loanable funds is dominated by saving and
investment, the reality is that a great deal of investment is financed
through stock issue and retained earnings that does not show up in the flow
of loanable. At the same tim, a great deal of borrowing takes place to
finance the purchase of existing assets as opposed to newly created assets
as well as to finance dissaving as consumer debt increases. Thus, in
principle, there can be a huge flow of loanable funds from savers to
dissavers and to finance the purchase of existing assets with no saving or
investing in the economy at all, and a substantial amount of investment
takes place that is not financed by borrowing. Thus there is no reason to
believe that aggregate saving and investment play a special role in
determining the flow of loanable funds.
[30] See Keynes (1936, Chapter 24) and cf. Blackford
(2013;
2014, Chapter 12).